MPSeDC GET Program 3.0 2026 – Exam-Oriented SOFTWARE ENGINEERING MCQ Questions

BEGINNER LEVEL

Q1: What does SDLC stand for?
A. Software Design Life Cycle
B. System Development Life Cycle
C. Software Development Life Cycle
D. System Design Life Cycle

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: SDLC stands for Software Development Life Cycle — a structured process followed for developing software, from initial planning through to maintenance.
Exam Shortcut: Remember “Software’s Development Cycle” — the trap option always swaps “Development” with “Design”.

Q2: Which is the correct standard order of generic SDLC phases?
A. Design → Requirement → Coding → Testing → Maintenance
B. Requirement → Design → Coding → Testing → Maintenance
C. Coding → Design → Requirement → Testing → Maintenance
D. Requirement → Coding → Design → Testing → Maintenance

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The classic SDLC sequence is: Requirement Gathering & Analysis → Design → Implementation/Coding → Testing → Deployment → Maintenance.
Exam Shortcut: Memorize “R-D-C-T-M” → “Real Developers Code, Then Maintain.”

Q3: Who is credited with formally introducing the Waterfall model?
A. Barry Boehm
B. Winston Royce
C. Edward Yourdon
D. Tom DeMarco

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Winston W. Royce described the Waterfall model in his 1970 paper, though he himself highlighted its limitations regarding feedback.
Exam Shortcut: “Royce = the Root of Waterfall (1970).”

Q4: In the pure Waterfall model, can a team easily revisit a previous completed phase?
A. Yes, freely at any time
B. No — it is a linear sequential model with no easy backward movement
C. Only after testing is complete
D. Only during the maintenance phase

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Waterfall is strictly linear-sequential; each phase must finish before the next starts, and going back is costly and discouraged.
Exam Shortcut: “Water never flows uphill — neither does the Waterfall model.”

Q5: The Waterfall model is best suited for projects where:
A. Requirements change frequently
B. Requirements are clear, fixed, and well understood
C. The project is purely experimental/research-based
D. Only a working prototype is needed

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Waterfall works best when requirements are stable and fully known in advance.
Exam Shortcut: “Fixed Requirements = Fit for Waterfall.”

Q6: A major drawback of the Waterfall model is:
A. It is too flexible for changes
B. Difficulty in accommodating changes once a phase is signed off
C. It requires too many roles
D. It cannot be documented

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Once a phase is completed and signed off, going back to make changes is costly and disruptive.
Exam Shortcut: “No feedback loop = No going back loop.”

Q7: The Prototype model is mainly used when:
A. Requirements are completely clear
B. Requirements are not clearly known by the customer
C. Budget is unlimited
D. No testing is required

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Prototyping builds a working mock-up early so customers can give feedback and clarify ambiguous or incomplete requirements.
Exam Shortcut: “Prototype = Practice model for unclear needs.”

Q8: Who proposed the Spiral Model?
A. Winston Royce
B. Barry Boehm
C. Ivar Jacobson
D. Grady Booch

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Barry Boehm proposed the Spiral model in 1986, combining iterative development with systematic risk management.
Exam Shortcut: “Boehm = Built the Spiral (think ‘risky Boehm-b’).”

Q9: The Spiral Model is mainly characterized by:
A. A strictly linear sequence of phases
B. Risk analysis performed in every loop/cycle
C. Absence of documentation
D. A single fixed cost estimate decided upfront

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Each cycle of the Spiral Model includes a dedicated risk-analysis step before proceeding.
Exam Shortcut: “Spiral = Risk-Spiral, never forget RISK is the keyword.”

Q10: RAD stands for:
A. Rapid Application Development
B. Rapid Analysis Design
C. Random Application Design
D. Reliable Application Development

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: RAD emphasizes fast, iterative development cycles using reusable components.
Exam Shortcut: “RAD = Rapid — speed is the giveaway word.”

Q11: RAD model emphasizes:
A. A long planning phase before anything else
B. Fast development using reusable components and heavy prototyping
C. Zero user involvement
D. Extremely heavy documentation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: RAD prioritizes speed by leveraging reusable components and continuous prototyping with active user involvement.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q12: Agile development primarily emphasizes:
A. Detailed upfront documentation before any coding
B. Iterative, incremental delivery with strong customer collaboration
C. No customer involvement during development
D. A single, final big release at project end

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Agile delivers software in small iterations with continuous customer feedback throughout.
Exam Shortcut: “Agile = Adaptive + Iterative + Customer-Centric.”

Q13: The Agile Manifesto values “individuals and interactions” over:
A. Working software
B. Processes and tools
C. Customer collaboration
D. Responding to change

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The four Agile Manifesto value-pairs are: Individuals & interactions over processes & tools; Working software over comprehensive documentation; Customer collaboration over contract negotiation; Responding to change over following a plan.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q14: In Scrum, a short fixed-length iteration of work is called a:
A. Release
B. Sprint
C. Increment
D. Backlog

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A Sprint is a time-boxed iteration, typically 2–4 weeks, in which a usable increment is produced.
Exam Shortcut: “Sprint = a short run, usually 2–4 weeks.”

Q15: The V-Model is also known as the:
A. Linear Sequential model
B. Verification and Validation model
C. Spiral model
D. Iterative model

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Each development phase is paired with a corresponding testing phase, forming a V shape of verification and validation.
Exam Shortcut: “V = Verification & Validation — twin V’s mirror each other on both arms of the ‘V’.”

Q16: In the V-Model, each development phase on the left arm is paired with a corresponding _ phase on the right arm.
A. Maintenance
B. Testing
C. Coding
D. Design

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Every left-arm development activity has a mirrored right-arm testing activity.
Exam Shortcut: “Left side builds, right side breaks (tests) — they mirror.”

Q17: The Incremental model delivers software:
A. In one single final build at the end
B. In successive increments, each adding new functionality
C. Without any testing at all
D. Only after the complete design is frozen

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The system is built and delivered in successive, functional increments rather than all at once.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q18: A Feasibility Study is performed:
A. After coding is complete
B. Before/at the start of a project to assess its viability
C. After testing
D. Only during maintenance

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Feasibility is checked at the very start to confirm the project is worth pursuing before resources are committed.
Exam Shortcut: “Feasibility First, always.”

Q19: Which of the following is NOT a recognized type of feasibility study?
A. Technical
B. Economic
C. Operational
D. Recreational

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The standard types are Technical, Economic, Operational, Schedule, and Legal feasibility (remember “TEOSL”).
Exam Shortcut: “TEOSL” — Technical, Economic, Operational, Schedule, Legal.

Q20: Requirement Elicitation is the process of:
A. Writing the source code
B. Gathering requirements from stakeholders
C. Testing the finished software
D. Designing the user interface

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Elicitation is the first step of requirement engineering, focused on collecting needs from stakeholders.
Exam Shortcut: “Elicit = Extract from people.”

Q21: SRS stands for:
A. Software Requirement Specification
B. System Requirement Solution
C. Software Release Schedule
D. System Resource Specification

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: SRS is the formal document capturing all agreed requirements of the software.
Exam Shortcut: “SRS = the official ‘contract’ document of requirements.”

Q22: A functional requirement specifies:
A. Performance constraints only
B. What the system should do — its functions/behaviors
C. The look and feel only
D. The hardware cost only

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Functional requirements define the actual behaviors/functions the system must perform.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q23: A non-functional requirement describes:
A. Functions performed by the system
B. Quality attributes such as performance, security, usability, reliability
C. Only the database schema
D. Only the source-code structure

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Non-functional requirements define how well the system performs rather than what it does.
Exam Shortcut: “Non-functional = the -ilities (reliability, usability, scalability, security).”

Q24: DFD stands for:
A. Data Flow Diagram
B. Design Flow Document
C. Data Form Diagram
D. Decision Flow Diagram

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A DFD models how data moves through a system.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q25: In a DFD, Level 0 (Context Diagram) represents:
A. All detailed internal sub-processes
B. The entire system as a single process interacting with external entities
C. Database tables only
D. Program code modules

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The context diagram shows the system as one bubble interacting with outside entities, with no internal detail.
Exam Shortcut: “Level 0 = Context = the Big Picture, one bubble only.”

Q26: ER Diagrams are primarily used to represent:
A. Process flow
B. Entities, attributes, and relationships in data
C. Program logic
D. Test cases

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: ER diagrams model the data structure of a system — entities, their attributes, and relationships.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q27: The key difference between a Flowchart and a DFD is:
A. Flowchart shows data flow; DFD shows control flow
B. Flowchart shows control/logic flow; DFD shows data flow
C. Both represent exactly the same thing
D. Neither represents any kind of flow

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Flowcharts depict the sequence/logic of operations, while DFDs depict how data moves between processes.
Exam Shortcut: “FlowCHART = Control logic; DFD = Data.”

Q28: Coupling refers to:
A. The degree of interdependence between two modules
B. The internal cohesiveness of a single module
C. The number of lines of code
D. The number of test cases written

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Coupling measures how tightly two modules depend on each other.
Exam Shortcut: “Coupling = Connection between modules → LOW coupling is GOOD.”

Q29: Cohesion refers to:
A. Interdependence between modules
B. The degree to which the elements inside a single module belong together
C. The total number of modules
D. The amount of testing effort

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cohesion measures how closely related and focused the responsibilities within a single module are.
Exam Shortcut: “Cohesion = Closeness within a module → HIGH cohesion is GOOD.”

Q30: In Top-Down design, the design process starts from:
A. The lowest-level modules first
B. The main/high-level module and proceeds toward detail
C. The database design
D. The testing strategy

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Top-Down design begins with the overall system structure and progressively refines into detailed modules.
Exam Shortcut: “Top-Down = start from the TOP (the main module).”

INTERMEDIATE LEVEL

Q31: Which SDLC model modifies the pure Waterfall by adding feedback paths between adjacent phases, allowing limited rework?
A. Pure Waterfall
B. Iterative Waterfall
C. Big Bang
D. V-Model

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Iterative Waterfall model adds feedback loops between consecutive phases so that errors detected later can trigger limited rework of the previous phase — addressing pure Waterfall’s biggest flaw.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q32: The four quadrants of the Spiral Model, in order, typically represent:
A. Coding → Testing → Design → Deployment
B. Determine objectives/alternatives/constraints → Risk analysis → Develop & verify → Plan next phase
C. Requirement → Design → Testing → Maintenance only
D. Marketing → Sales → Support → Billing

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Each spiral cycle moves through these four quadrants in sequence.
Exam Shortcut: “Spiral order = Plan-Risk-Engineer-Review, repeated every loop (PRER).”

Q33: Each loop/cycle in the Spiral Model represents:
A. A simple bug fix
B. A phase of the software process that produces an actual deliverable
C. The final release only
D. Testing activity alone

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q34: RAD model is NOT suitable when:
A. The system can be modularized easily
B. The project cannot be time-boxed and carries high technical risk
C. End-users are readily available for feedback
D. Reusable components already exist

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: RAD demands clear modular decomposition and committed users within tight time-boxes; it fails for high-risk, technically complex, or non-modular systems.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q35: Which statement correctly distinguishes Agile from Waterfall?
A. Agile has fixed scope; Waterfall is flexible
B. Agile welcomes changing requirements even late in development; Waterfall resists late changes
C. Waterfall delivers software in iterative increments
D. Agile requires complete documentation before any coding begins

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q36: In Scrum, who is responsible for managing/prioritizing the Product Backlog?
A. Scrum Master
B. Product Owner
C. Development Team
D. Any stakeholder

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Product Owner owns and prioritizes the backlog based on business value.
Exam Shortcut: “Product Owner = owns priorities; Scrum Master = removes obstacles.”

Q37: Which of the following is a Scrum artifact (not an event)?
A. Sprint Retrospective
B. Product Backlog
C. Daily Standup
D. Sprint Planning

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Scrum artifacts = Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog, Increment. Retrospective, Standup, and Planning are Scrum events, not artifacts.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q38: Which of the following is a core practice of Extreme Programming (XP)?
A. No testing until final release
B. Pair programming and continuous integration
C. Six-month long release cycles
D. No customer involvement at all

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q39: In the V-Model, the “Unit Testing” phase on the right arm corresponds to which phase on the left arm?
A. Requirement Analysis
B. Module/Detailed Design
C. System Design
D. Acceptance Testing planning

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “Detailed Design ↔ Unit Testing — they mirror at the bottom tip of the V.”

Q40: The Big Bang model is characterized by:
A. Detailed upfront planning with clear phases
B. Very little planning, with resources poured in despite unclear requirements
C. Heavy formal documentation
D. Strict scheduling discipline

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Big Bang model is used mostly for small or academic/experimental projects, with no formal process — high risk, hard to plan.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q41: Component-Based Development (CBD) model focuses primarily on:
A. Writing every part of the system from scratch
B. Assembling and reusing pre-existing/off-the-shelf components
C. Avoiding documentation entirely
D. Delivering in a single uninterrupted phase

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q42: COCOMO is primarily used for:
A. Test-case design
B. Software cost and effort estimation
C. User-interface design
D. Database normalization

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “COCOMO = COnstructive COst MOdel.”

Q43: What is the correct order of activities in the Requirement Engineering process?
A. Elicitation → Specification → Analysis → Validation
B. Elicitation → Analysis → Specification → Validation
C. Analysis → Elicitation → Validation → Specification
D. Specification → Elicitation → Analysis → Validation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “E-A-S-V: Elicit, Analyze, Specify, Validate.”

Q44: Requirement Validation ensures that:
A. Requirements are correctly coded
B. The SRS document correctly reflects actual stakeholder needs
C. The system passes its unit tests
D. The database is fully normalized

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q45: A Requirement Traceability Matrix (RTM) is used to:
A. Track design patterns used
B. Map and trace each requirement through design, code, and test cases
C. Estimate overall project cost
D. Manage source-code version control

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “RTM links Requirement → Test Case, so nothing slips through unnoticed.”

Q46: As per IEEE standards, a good SRS should be:
A. Ambiguous and flexible
B. Complete, consistent, unambiguous, and verifiable
C. Lengthy and informal
D. Written only in source code

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Remember “CCUV” — Complete, Consistent, Unambiguous, Verifiable.

Q47: Use Case diagrams in UML primarily depict:
A. Database schema
B. Functional interactions between actors and the system
C. The internal code structure
D. Network topology

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q48: In standard DFD notation, a circle/bubble represents:
A. An external entity
B. A process
C. A data store
D. A data flow

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “Circle = transforms data = Process.”

Q49: In DFD notation, an open rectangle made of two parallel lines typically represents:
A. A process
B. A data store
C. An external entity
D. A data flow

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q50: Decision Tables are generally preferred over Decision Trees when:
A. There are very few conditions
B. There are many complex combinations of conditions to represent compactly
C. A visual flow representation is needed
D. There are no conditions at all

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “Table = compact for many combinations; Tree = better for visualizing few branches.”

Q51: Structured English in requirement specification is used to:
A. Replace all diagrams entirely
B. Express process logic in a restricted, unambiguous natural-language form
C. Design the database schema
D. Write the final compiled code

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q52: Functional decomposition in design means:
A. Merging all modules into a single block
B. Breaking a system into smaller, manageable functional modules
C. Removing system functions
D. Deliberately increasing coupling

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q53: A Structure Chart is primarily used to depict:
A. Data relationships
B. The hierarchical module structure and data/control flow between modules
C. Process timing diagrams
D. Network design

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q54: Function-Oriented Design focuses primarily on:
A. Objects and classes
B. Functions/procedures and the flow of data between them
C. Database tables
D. The user interface only

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q55: Object-Oriented Design (OOD) focuses primarily on:
A. Data flow alone
B. Identifying objects/classes along with their attributes and methods
C. Decision tables
D. Procedural logic alone

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q56: Rank the following cohesion types from WORST to BEST: Coincidental, Functional, Logical.
A. Functional → Logical → Coincidental
B. Coincidental → Logical → Functional
C. Logical → Coincidental → Functional
D. Functional → Coincidental → Logical

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The full cohesion ladder (worst to best) is: Coincidental → Logical → Temporal → Procedural → Communicational → Sequential → Functional.
Exam Shortcut: Remember the ladder “Co-Lo-Te-Pro-Com-Se-Fun” (worst → best); Functional is the gold standard.

Q57: Which type of coupling is considered the WORST (most undesirable)?
A. Data coupling
B. Content coupling
C. Stamp coupling
D. Control coupling

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Content coupling occurs when one module directly accesses/modifies the internal data of another — the tightest, worst form. Data coupling (passing simple parameters) is the best/loosest.
Exam Shortcut: Coupling ladder (worst → best): Content → Common → Control → Stamp → Data.

Q58: Modularity in software design primarily helps in:
A. Increasing overall complexity
B. Easier maintenance, understanding, and reusability
C. Eliminating testing needs entirely
D. Removing the need for documentation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q59: The principle of “Information Hiding” was introduced by:
A. Edward Yourdon
B. David Parnas
C. Barry Boehm
D. Tom DeMarco

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “Parnas = Privacy of internal module details.”

Q60: Abstraction in software design means:
A. Showing all implementation details
B. Focusing on essential characteristics while hiding implementation complexity
C. Removing required functionality
D. Deliberately increasing coupling

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q61: Architectural Design defines:
A. Detailed code-level logic
B. The overall structure of the system — its major components and their relationships
C. Test cases
D. Database indices only

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q62: Detailed (Procedural) Design specifies:
A. The overall system structure
B. The internal logic/algorithm of each individual module
C. Marketing strategy
D. Risk analysis

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q63: High-Level Design (HLD) vs Low-Level Design (LLD): HLD focuses on _ while LLD focuses on _.
A. Code; Architecture
B. System architecture/modules; Detailed module-level logic
C. Testing; Requirement gathering
D. Maintenance; Deployment

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q64: Interface Design deals with:
A. Internal algorithm logic only
B. How the software communicates with users, other systems, and hardware
C. Database normalization
D. Risk management

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q65: Data Design in software engineering focuses on:
A. UI layout
B. Transforming the data model (e.g., ER model) into data structures needed for implementation
C. Testing strategy
D. Cost estimation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q66: Which design strategy works well when requirements are well-understood and can be decomposed from general to specific?
A. Bottom-Up design
B. Top-Down design
C. Random design
D. No formal design

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q67: Bottom-Up design approach starts from:
A. The main module
B. Lower-level/basic modules, which are then combined into higher-level modules
C. The database only
D. The testing phase

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q68: Verification answers the question:
A. “Are we building the right product?”
B. “Are we building the product right?”
C. “Is the product profitable?”
D. “Is the product fully tested?”

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Verification = process-oriented, “building it right” (static checks, reviews). Validation = product-oriented, “building the right product” (dynamic checks against actual needs).
Exam Shortcut: “Verification = process; Validation = product. V for ‘right’ V for ‘product’ (alliteration trick: Validation-Verification).”

Q69: The cost of fixing a defect is generally:
A. Same regardless of the SDLC phase it’s found in
B. Lowest if found early (requirements phase) and highest if found after deployment
C. Highest during the design phase only
D. Completely independent of phase

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “Earlier caught = Cheaper fix — the classic 1x → 10x → 100x defect cost rule.”

Q70: CASE tools are used to:
A. Replace developers entirely
B. Automate and support various SDLC activities such as design, coding, and testing
C. Only perform testing
D. Only manage hardware

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “CASE = Computer-Aided Software Engineering.”

ADVANCED LEVEL

Q71: In the COCOMO model, the “Organic” project mode is characterized by:
A. Large, complex, highly innovative projects
B. Small, simple, familiar projects handled by an experienced team
C. Embedded/real-time critical systems
D. Projects with no defined team

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “Organic = small & simple, like a home-grown garden project.”

Q72: In Basic COCOMO, the effort estimation formula is:
A. E = a(KLOC)^b
B. E = a + b(KLOC)
C. E = a(KLOC) − b
D. E = a/b(KLOC)

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Basic COCOMO: Effort (in person-months) = a × (KLOC)^b, where a and b are constants depending on the project type (Organic/Semidetached/Embedded).
Exam Shortcut: “Effort = a-power-b on KLOC” — remember the exponent form.

Q73: Function Point Analysis (FPA) measures software size based on:
A. Lines of code only
B. Functional user requirements like inputs, outputs, inquiries, files, and interfaces
C. The number of developers
D. Testing hours spent

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q74: A government project has fixed, well-documented requirements with strict regulatory compliance and a critical safety need for thorough verification and validation at every stage. The MOST suitable model is:
A. Agile/Scrum
B. V-Model
C. Big Bang
D. RAD

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The V-Model’s structured, mirrored V&V at every development stage makes it ideal for safety-critical, well-defined, regulation-heavy government/defense projects.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q75: A startup wants frequent customer feedback and is unsure of the exact final requirements, needing rapid iterative releases. The best-fit model is:
A. Waterfall
B. Agile
C. V-Model
D. Big Bang

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q76: Requirements are unclear about UI/UX expectations, but the underlying logic is straightforward. The team builds a working mock-up to gather feedback before final development. This is an example of:
A. Spiral Model
B. Prototype Model
C. V-Model
D. Waterfall Model

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q77: A very high-risk project (e.g., new untested technology, large national-level system) needing risk assessment at every single stage should use:
A. RAD
B. Spiral Model
C. Big Bang
D. Pure Waterfall

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q78: Identify the WRONG statement about the Waterfall model.
A. It is a linear sequential model
B. It allows continuous customer feedback throughout development
C. Testing occurs after implementation is complete
D. It works well with stable, well-understood requirements

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Waterfall does NOT allow continuous feedback — customer involvement is mainly limited to the start (requirements) and end (delivery); this is its central weakness.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q79: A team followed the phase order: Design → Requirement Analysis → Coding → Testing → Maintenance, and faced major rework. What is the flaw in this process?
A. They followed Agile incorrectly
B. Design was performed before Requirement Analysis, violating the logical SDLC sequence
C. Testing was skipped entirely
D. Maintenance was unnecessary

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Requirement analysis must always precede design; designing first means basing the design on assumptions rather than verified needs, leading directly to costly rework.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q80: Given a Context-level (Level 0) DFD of a “Library Management System” showing only “Library System” as a single process connected to “Librarian” and “Student” external entities, what would the Level 1 DFD typically show?
A. The exact same single process, with no change
B. The system’s internal processes broken down (e.g., Issue Book, Return Book, Search Catalog)
C. Only data stores, with no processes shown
D. The source code of the system

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “Level 0 = one box (context); Level 1 = that box decomposed into sub-processes.”

Q81: What is the KEY difference between the Spiral Model and the Iterative Waterfall Model?
A. There is no real difference — they are the same
B. Spiral explicitly incorporates formal risk analysis in every cycle; Iterative Waterfall does not emphasize this
C. Iterative Waterfall has risk analysis, Spiral does not
D. Spiral has no distinct phases at all

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q82: Which activity below is an example of VALIDATION (not Verification)?
A. A code walkthrough
B. Reviewing the SRS document for completeness
C. User Acceptance Testing comparing the product against actual user needs
D. Static analysis of the source code

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Validation involves dynamically checking the actual product against real user needs (e.g., UAT); Verification involves static checks like reviews, walkthroughs, and inspections.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q83: Why is “high cohesion and low coupling” considered the gold standard in software design?
A. It increases complexity and inter-module dependency
B. It makes modules more independent, easier to maintain, test, and reuse
C. It eliminates the need for testing entirely
D. It deliberately increases the number of bugs

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q84: Why is the SRS document often described as a “contract” between developers and clients?
A. It has no legal or practical value
B. It formally documents agreed-upon requirements, forming the basis for design, development, and acceptance testing
C. It is used only for billing purposes
D. It completely replaces the need for testing

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q85: Object-Oriented Design (OOD) typically follows steps in which order?
A. Identify objects/classes → Identify relationships → Define attributes/methods → Design class interfaces
B. Code → Test → Design → Requirement
C. Design database → Identify objects → Test
D. Test → Identify objects → Code

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q86: The Structured Design Strategy (Yourdon/Constantine) primarily uses which tool to convert a DFD into a design?
A. ER diagram
B. Structure Chart (derived via Transform/Transaction analysis)
C. UML class diagram
D. Decision table

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “DFD → Structure Chart, via Transform Analysis (for transform-centered systems) or Transaction Analysis (for transaction-centered systems).”

Q87: Which software architecture style is best suited for a system requiring distributed request-response interaction between client applications and a central server?
A. Layered architecture
B. Client-Server architecture
C. Pipe-and-Filter architecture
D. Repository architecture

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q88: Which architecture style processes data through a sequence of independent components, each transforming and passing data to the next?
A. Client-Server
B. Pipe-and-Filter
C. MVC
D. Repository

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q89: Which Requirement Elicitation technique involves bringing multiple stakeholders together in structured workshops to rapidly gather and reconcile requirements?
A. Brainstorming
B. Joint Application Development (JAD)
C. Use case modeling
D. Prototyping

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q90: FURPS is an acronym used to classify:
A. SDLC phases
B. Non-functional requirements: Functionality, Usability, Reliability, Performance, Supportability
C. Coupling types
D. Design tools

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q91: Between Function Points (FP) and Lines of Code (LOC), which is considered a more LANGUAGE-INDEPENDENT size measure?
A. LOC
B. Function Points
C. Both are equally dependent on language
D. Neither measures software size

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “FP counts functionality, not syntax — so it stays the same no matter which language is used.”

Q92: In the Spiral Model, the FIRST quadrant activity in each cycle is typically:
A. Risk analysis
B. Determine objectives, alternatives, and constraints
C. Develop and verify the next-level product
D. Plan the next phase

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Standard order of the 4 quadrants: (1) Determine objectives/alternatives/constraints, (2) Identify and resolve risks, (3) Develop and verify the next-level product, (4) Plan the next phase.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q93: V&V activities at the “Requirement Analysis” phase typically map to which testing phase in the V-Model?
A. Unit Testing
B. Acceptance Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. System Testing

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “Requirements ↔ Acceptance Testing — they mirror at the outermost tips of the V.”

Q94: The purpose of a Design Review is to:
A. Completely replace testing
B. Evaluate the design for correctness, completeness, and quality before implementation begins
C. Estimate project cost only
D. Train new employees

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q95: In a Structure Chart, a “Data Couple” represents:
A. A control flag passed between modules
B. A data item passed between two modules
C. A module call
D. A loop construct

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “Data couple = pure data only; Control couple = a flag/switch signal.”

Q96: Which type of cohesion is considered the BEST (ideal) for module design?
A. Coincidental
B. Functional
C. Temporal
D. Logical

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Functional cohesion — where every element inside a module contributes to a single, well-defined task — is the strongest and most desirable form.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q97: Which type of coupling is considered the BEST (most desirable, loosest) between modules?
A. Content coupling
B. Data coupling
C. Common coupling
D. Control coupling

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Data coupling — where modules communicate purely via simple data parameters — is the loosest and most desirable form of coupling.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q98: A module directly accesses and modifies the internal data of another module, bypassing its defined interface. This is an example of:
A. Data coupling
B. Content coupling
C. Stamp coupling
D. Functional cohesion

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Directly accessing/modifying another module’s internals is Content Coupling — the tightest and worst form of coupling.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q99: A government IT department wants to build a citizen-services portal where requirements will evolve as more departments are onboarded over time, and partial functionality should be released early. The most suitable SDLC model is:
A. Pure Waterfall
B. Incremental Model
C. Big Bang
D. V-Model

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Incremental model delivers working functional increments over time as requirements evolve — ideal for phased government portal rollouts with growing scope.
Exam Shortcut: Not provided.

Q100: Which sequence correctly orders the Software Design hierarchy from BROADEST to MOST DETAILED?
A. Detailed Design → Architectural Design → Interface Design
B. Architectural Design → Interface/High-Level Design → Detailed/Procedural Design
C. Procedural Design → Architectural Design → Data Design
D. Interface Design → Data Design → Architectural Design

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Not provided.
Exam Shortcut: “Design funnel: Architecture (big picture) → Interface/Data/HLD (mid-level) → Detailed/Procedural (smallest, code-level).”